Lots of readers are overcomplicating this meditation on the meaning of "white male privilege." Are there historical patterns in which some groups have social privileges? Are men more privileged than women, as in patriarchies? Why would that be? And have "whites" found themselves more privileged than darker-skinned people, as in European imperialism? Again, why would that be?

I'm positing that genetic traits and cultural values of anti-sociality may have something to do with it. That's all.

All generalizations outside of those in physics and deductive logic are ceteris paribus, so exceptions don't necessarily disprove the rule. Thus, your first paragraph should be dismissed.

The second paragraph sets up a strawman. My point about double standards and privileges is that just as secular humanism entails the double standard between people and animals, there might be an implicit double standard between human social classes, in which case the elites are often effectively above the law that applies to the masses.

How would the fact that one humanist somewhere says otherwise refute this argument by analogy? Notice how I move from one point to the other, the appeal being to similarity:

"The question, therefore, is whether there are similar morally significant distinctions between people."